All of the following statements are correct in reference to vaccine-preventable diseases in the United States, EXCEPT for one. Which one is the exception?
A. Immunization programs in the U.S. have markedly reduced the incidence of vaccine-preventable diseases in children.
B. Healthcare workers are at a lower risk of vaccine preventable disease than the general public.
C. Today, a substantial percentage of morbidity and mortality from vaccine-preventable childhood diseases occurs in older adolescents and adults.
D. Adults who escaped natural infection or immunization during childhood may be at increased risk of vaccine-preventable disease because of advanced age, the presence of certain chronic diseases, or occupation.
All of the following statements are correct with respect to vaccines EXCEPT for one. Which one is the exception?
A. Whole pathogen vaccines consist of either live-attenuated or inactivated microorganisms.
B. Subunit vaccines contained fractionated antigenic components of a microorganism and typically require the incorporation of an adjuvant to generate a sufficient immune response.
C. Vaccines provide immediate protection for the host.
D. Alum is an example of an adjuvant.
All of the following statements regarding nucleic acid vaccines are true EXCEPT for one. Which one is the exception?
A. Nucleic acid vaccines provide the specific genetic material encoding the target antigen or antigens against which an immune response is sought.
B. Once introduced, the body’s own cells use the genetic material to produce the desired antibody.
C. Once introduced, the body’s own cells use the genetic material to produce the desired antigen.
D. Potential advantages of this approach include no risk of infection; improved vaccine stability; stimulation of broad long-term immunity; and rapid, inexpensive, and scalable vaccine manufacturing.
Neutralizing antibodies readily diffuse into infected cells to interact with the target-organism, while lymphoid K-cells recognize target organisms before initial intracellular penetration.
A. The first part of the statement is true, but the second part of the statement is false.
B. The first part of the statement is false, but the second part of the statement is true.
C. Both parts of the statement are true.
D. Both parts of the statement are false.
All of the following statements are correct with respect to passive immunization EXCEPT which one?
A. Immunoglobulins may be obtained from human or animal donors who have recovered from an infectious disease or who have been previously immunized.
B. Passive immunity against specific microorganisms may be conferred with the administration of immunoglobulins.
C. Passive immunization usually affects an immune response in about 7-10 days.
D. Passive immunization is useful when active immunization is unavailable or contraindicated, or when an individual cannot form antibodies.
All of the following statements in relation to live attenuated vaccines are correct EXCEPT which one?
A. Live attenuated vaccines, because of their potential for infecting the fetus, should not be administered to pregnant women unless there is a high immediate risk of infection.
B. The administration of live attenuated vaccine is highly recommended for patients undergoing cancer chemotherapy, post-organ transplantation, and those on corticosteroids.
C. The administration of live attenuated vaccines is contraindicated to persons with known or suspected congenital or acquired immunodeficiency.
D. Live attenuated vaccines tend to have higher rates of adverse effects (particularly fever).
All of the following statements are true in relation to potential adverse reaction to vaccines EXCEPT which one?
A. In addition to the desired antigen, vaccines may also contain other components such as residual animal or human proteins, antibiotics (neomycin), preservatives (thimerosal) and stabilizers (aluminum phosphate), which may cause allergic reactions or toxicity.
B. The most common allergic component of vaccines is egg proteins found in vaccines prepared in chicken eggs or chicken embryonic cultures.
C. Subcutaneous administration of some vaccines, such as those containing aluminum phosphates can lead to local tissue necrosis.
D. Most adult vaccines are given by SC or IM injection, intravascular administration tends to reduce adverse effects and increase the immune response.
Immunization strategies for OHCWs are predicated on all of the following considerations, EXCEPT for one. Which one is the exception?
A. Vaccines mandated or strongly recommended at the time of employment.
B. Vaccine recommended if another risk factor is presents.
C. The availability of immunoglobulins, which are administered to susceptible persons only in the event of inadvertent exposure to blood or OPIM.
D. The cost of the vaccine.
All of the following statements are correct in relation to the hepatitis B vaccine, EXCEPT for one. Which one is the exception?
A. HB viral infection is a minor vaccine preventable health hazard for the OHCP.
B. Universal immunization is mandated for all OHCP.
C. Persons who decline the hepatitis B vaccination series must sign a copy of the Mandatory Hepatitis B Vaccination Declination Form.
D. Vaccination should be completed during training.
All of the following statements in relation to hepatitis B vaccination are correct EXCEPT which one?
A. Primary immunization with hepatitis B vaccine consists of two or three IM injections at 0, 1, and 6 months or 0 and 1 month, respectively.
B. Post-vaccination confirmation of seroconversion is mandated 1-2 months after the final dose.
C. OHCP who do not develop an adequate antibody response to the primary vaccination series shall be offered a second 2 or 3-dose vaccine series.
D. If no antibody response occurs to the second hepatitis B vaccination series, testing for HBsAg is strongly recommended.
All of the following statements in relation to OHCP who failed to seroconvert following two HBV vaccination series are correct, EXCEPT for one. Which one is the exception?
A. They are at risk of HBV infection after percutaneous or permucosal exposure.
B. They should be administered hepatitis B immune globulin within a week of exposure (ideally within 24 hours).
C. In addition to HBIG, they should receive an alternate 4-dose series of vaccine.
D. They should not receive a second dose of HBIG 30 days after the first dose if the HB vaccine is declined.
All of the following statements are correct in relation to the influenza prevention, EXCEPT for one. Which one is the exception?
A. It is strongly recommended that all OHCP, including those in training, be vaccinated annually against influenza.
B. The virologic basis for the annual influenza vaccine is the emergence of new influenza virus variant from frequent antigenic change.
C. The live attenuated intranasal influenza vaccine is specifically approved for individuals >65 years of age.
D. Antiviral agents with activity against influenza are most effective if provided within 48 hours of symptom onset.
All of the following statements are correct in relation to the MMR vaccine EXCEPT which one?
A. It is strongly recommended that all OHCP be immune to measles, mumps, and rubella.
B. Immunity to rubella in women of childbearing age should not be a concern in healthcare setting because congenital rubella in the US is no longer considered a public health threat.
C. The trivalent MMR vaccine is the vaccine of choice for routine adult vaccination.
D. The MMR vaccine contains live attenuated measles, mumps, and rubella viruses.
Immunity to the varicella-zoster virus can be confirmed by all of the following methods EXCEPT which one?
A. Physician-diagnosed varicella (chickenpox) or herpes zoster.
B. Laboratory evidence of VZV immunity.
C. Age-appropriate vaccination against VZV.
D. Evidence based on maternal recollection.
Which of the following vaccines is now considered the vaccine of choice to prevent HZ?
All of the following statements are correct relative to tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, EXCEPT for one. Which one is the exception?
A. Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis are bacterial infections.
B. The Td vaccine contains tetanus and diphtheria toxoids and protein components of acellular pertusus.
C. OHCP with uncertain history of primary vaccination should receive and initial dose of Tdap followed by a Td or Tdap booster every 10 years.
D. Tdap is recommended as part of wound management.
All of the following statements regarding HPV are correct, EXCEPT for one. Which one is the exception?
A. The HPV may be acquired occupationally by OHCP through a cut, abrasion, or small tear in the outer layer of skin or mucous membranes.
B. High-risk strains of HPV may cause cervical cancer and oropharyngeal cancer.
C. The recommended HPV vaccine for OHCP is the quadrivalent vaccine
D. Vaccine naïve OHCP <45 years of age deemed at risk for HPV are recommended for vaccination.
All of the following statement regarding SARS-CoV-2 are true, EXCEPT for one. Which one is the exception?
A. The risk of asymptomatic spread is considered nil.
B. It is predominately spread via droplets produced when an infected patient coughs, sneezes, or talks.
C. An increased risk of death is associated with increasing age and the presence of certain co-morbidities.
D. The mRNA vaccines BNT162b2 and mRNAA-1271 received Emergency Use Authorization from the FDA in December 2020.
All of the following statements are correct with respect to Neisseria meningitidis, EXCEPT for one. Which one is the exception?
A. Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted from the respiratory tract into the bloodstream and causes inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord.
B. OHCP who meet certain risk criteria are recommended for vaccination.
C. All OHCP adults should receive vaccination once they are >55 years of age.
D. Booster vaccinations are recommended as long as the risk criteria persist.