Which of the following statements related to the availability and utilization of drugs by ambulatory patients is correct? A. In the United States, there are approximately 500 active ingredients (drugs) in several thousand different formulations. B. The Top 200 Prescription Drugs dispensed by U.S. community pharmacies represent 40% of the available 500 active ingredients and comprise 90% of all drugs taken by ambulatory patients. C. The Top 300 Prescription Drugs represent 60% of the available 500 active ingredients and comprise 97% of all drugs taken by ambulatory patients. D. All of the above. All of the following statements related to information available at DailyMed are correct EXCEPT which one? A. DailyMed is the official repository for FDA-approved package inserts, i.e., for individual drug-related knowledge base. B. The information on DailyMed contains promotional information such as implied claims (i.e., off label indications) for the use of a drug. C. Drug information on DailyMed is the most recent submitted to the FDA by manufacturers and may include strengthened warnings undergoing FDA review. D. The information on DailyMed, whenever possible it is based on human experience. Which of the following statements related to primary and opportunistic fungal infections is correct? A. Most pathogenic fungi are saprophytic members of the soil microbial flora; for these organisms, the respiratory system is the most common portals of entry. B. Opportunistic fungi are found typically on oral, vaginal, and gastrointestinal mucosa; or as residents on skin, and at times, on respiratory epithelium. C. Acquired or therapeutic immunosuppression predisposes patients to oropharyngeal and systemic candidal infections. D. All of the above. Which of the following antifungal agents inhibits fungal cell wall synthesis? A. The echinocandin antifungal agents that inhibit β-(1,3)-D-glucan synthase. B. The allylamine and benzylamine antifungal agents that inhibit squaline synthase. C. The azole antifungal agents that inhibit of 14α-sterol demethylase. D. The polyene antifungal agents that bind to ergosterol. The spectrum of all of the following antifungal agents includes at least some members of the Candida sp. EXCEPT which one? A. Echinocandins B. Allylamines, benzylamines, and griseofulvin C. Azoles (imidazoles and triazoles) and polyenes D. Flucytosine Which of the following antifungal agents is recommended, based on high-quality evidence, for the treatment of mild oropharyngeal candidiasis? A. Clotrimazole touches B. Miconazole mucoadhesive tablets C. Nystatin oral suspension or pastilles D. A and B are correct. Which of the following statements related to fluconazole is correct? A. It has a nearly 100% bioavailability following oral administration and diffuses freely into saliva. B. Strong recommendation for its use to treat moderate-to-sever oropharyngeal candidiasis and for chronic suppressive therapy in recurrent infections is based on high-quality evidence. C. Potential ADRs include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea; CYP3A4-related drug-drug interactions; and rare cases of liver toxicity and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. D. All of the above. Which of the following antifungal agents has broader activity against Candida sp.; and, based on moderate-quality evidence, is strongly recommendation for the treatment of fluconazole-refractory moderate-to-severe oropharyngeal candidiasis? A. Itraconazole solution B. Posaconazole suspension C. Voriconazole tablets D. All of the above. All of the following statements related to the antifungal agent amphotericin B deoxycholate are correct EXCEPT which one? A. Amphotericin B deoxycholate suspension is effective in some patient with moderate-to-sever fluconazole-refractory oropharyngeal candidiasis; strong recommendation for its use is based on moderate-quality evidence. B. Strong recommendation for intravenous amphotericin B deoxycholate to treat moderate-to-sever fluconazole-refractory oropharyngeal candidiasis is based on moderate-quality evidence. C. Following intravenous administration of amphotericin B deoxycholate, serious ADRs may include cytokine storm. D. Following intravenous administration of amphotericin B deoxycholate, potential serious ADRs include renal toxicity; anemia, and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Which of the following statements related to intravenous caspofungin, micafungin, or anidulafungin is correct? A. Intravenous caspofungin, micafungin, or anidulafungin are used primarily to treat esophageal candidiasis. B. Weak recommendation for their use to treat fluconazole-resistant moderate-to-severe oropharyngeal candidiasis is based on moderate-quality evidence. C. Potential ADRs include pruritus, rash, gastrointestinal disturbances, headache, and fever. D. All of the above. Which of the following statements related to viruses and viral pharmacology is correct? A. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites called virions and consist of an RNA or a DNA genome. B. The viral genome is surrounded by a virus-encoded protein shell capsid; and, in some cases, the capsid is surrounded by an envelope. C. With some variations, all virions have the same general viral life cycle and each stage is a potential target for pharmacological intervention. D. All of the above. All of the following statements related to mechanisms of action of antiviral agents are correct EXCEPT which one? A. Inhibitors of viral attachment block specific receptors on host cell membranes. B. Inhibitors of viral uncoating block the fusion of viral envelope with host cell plasma membrane and the release of the viral genome into host cell cytoplasm. C. Nucleoside analogues are incorporated into the growing viral genome and inhibit polymerase activity. D. Non-nucleoside polymerase inhibitors directly inhibit RNA or DNA polymerases. All of the following statements related to anti-HIV agents are correct EXCEPT which one? A. The first step in HIV genome replication is reverse transcription, i.e., the viral RNA is first copied into DNA, which is then transcribed into mRNA. B. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors block the transcription of the HIV DNA genome into RNA. C. HIV integrase inhibitors block the integration of viral genome into host cell genome. D. Currently available inhibitors of viral maturation are inhibitors of HIV proteases. Which of the following statements related to orolabial herpetic infections is correct? A. Orolabial herpetic infections in immunocompetent patients are usually self-limiting. B. Treatment orolabial herpetic infections in immunocompetent patients is primarily palliative and supportive directed at controlling fever, dehydration, and pain; and monitoring for evidence of systemic viremia. C. Antiviral agents may be prescribed to immunocompetent patients with moderate-to-severe primary herpetic gingivostomatitis and to patients with recurrent orolabial herpetic infections; and to immunocompromised patient, who are inherently at risk of complications. D. All of the above. Which of the following statements related to the treatment of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is correct? A. The recommendation of oral acyclovir for the treatment of moderate-to-severe primary herpetic gingivostomatitis in immunocompetent patients is based on limited-quality evidence. B. In a placebo controlled study, children on acyclovir experienced reduction in the duration of lesions, fever, difficulty eating and drinking, and viral shedding. C. Oral valacyclovir or famciclovir are recommended as acceptable alternatives to oral acyclovir. D. All of the above. Which of the following statements related to recurrent herpes labialis is correct? A. The recommendation of oral acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir for the treatment of acute episodes of herpes labialis in immunocompetent and immunocompromised patients is based on good-quality evidence. B. Oral acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir have been found to be effective in reducing viral shedding, pain, and healing time. C. Based on good-quality evidence, oral acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir are also recommended for the suppression of frequent recurrent infections. D. All of the above. All of the following statements related to oral acyclovir, valacyclovir, and famciclovir are correct EXCEPT which one? A. Oral acyclovir, valacyclovir, and famciclovir are well tolerated and associated adverse reactions are similar. B. Common ADRs include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, malaise, and headaches. C. Rare ADRs include myalgia, rash, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, tremors, lethargy, confusion, hallucinations, seizures, and coma. D. Resistance to acyclovir is common, but HSV strains resistant to acyclovir are susceptible to valacyclovir and famciclovir. Which of the following statements related to docosanol is correct? A. Topical docosanol, 10% cream, a 22-carbon saturated alcohol, is approved by the FDA as an over-the-counter agent for the treatment of recurrent herpes labialis in immunocompetent patients. B. The drug is somewhat effective - treatment within 12 hours of prodromal signs and symptoms decreased pain (2.2 vs. 2.7 days) and healing time (4.1 vs. 4.8 days). C. Common ADRs at the site of application include rash and pruritis. D. All of the above. All of the following statements related to penciclovir are correct EXCEPT which one? A. Topical penciclovir, 1% cream, appears to be helpful in the treatment of herpes labialis in immunocompetent adults. B. The application of penciclovir versus placebo beginning within one hour of the first signs and symptoms of recurrence reduced the median duration of pain (4.1 to 3.5 days) and healing time (5.5 to 4.8 days). C. The drug significantly reduces the medial time for viral shedding. D. Systemic absorption of penciclovir after topical use is negligible. All of the following statements related to intravenous foscarnet are correct EXCEPT which one? A. Patients with moderate-to-severe primary herpetic gingivostomatitis with acyclovir-resistant infections may respond to intravenous foscarnet. B. Immunocompromised patients with acyclovir-resistant mucocutaneous infections may respond to intravenous foscarnet. C. Potential ADRs include electrolyte imbalances; seizures; anemia and neutropenia; fever; nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea; headache. D. Uncommon ADRs include reversible renal dysfunction, especially in patients with inadequate hydration.