Which of the following statements related to respiratory drugs in the Top 300 is correct? A. Synthetic trifluorinated corticosteroid with anti-inflammatory activity such as fluticasone nasal spray and selective histaminergic H 1‑receptor antagonists such as cetirizine and loratadine are indicated for the treatment of allergic rhinitis. B. Selective short-acting beta 2‑adrenergic receptor agonists such as albuterol and levalbuteral are indicated for the treatment of bronchospasm with reversible obstructive airway disease. C. Montelukast, cysteinyl leukotriene (CysLT)-receptor antagonist, may be taken by a patient for the treatment/prevention of allergic rhinitis, asthma, or exercise-induced bronchoconstriction. D. All of the above. A patient with asthma may be taking which of the following medications? A. Fluticasone w/salmeterol B. Budesonide w/formoterol C. Mometasone w/formoterol D. All of the above. Which of the following statements related to respiratory drugs in the Top 300 is correct? A. Fluticasone w/salmeterol or budesonide w/formoterol may be taken by a patient for the treatment of COPD. B. Long-acting, muscarinic M 3‑receptor antagonists such as tiotropium and ipratropium are indicated for the long-term treatment of bronchospasm associated with COPD, including chronic bronchitis and emphysema. C. Albuterol w/ipratropium is indicated for the treatment of bronchospasm associated with COPD in patients requiring more than one bronchodilator. D. All of the above. Which of the following statements related to respiratory drugs in the Top 300 is correct? A. Benzonatate anesthetizes the stretch receptors located in the respiratory passages, lungs, and pleura thereby reducing the cough reflex at its source. B. Guaifenesin is indicated to loosen phlegm (mucus) and thin bronchial secretion, to drain bronchial tubes, and to make coughs more productive. C. Guaifenesin w/codeine is indicated for the temporarily control cough due to minor throat and bronchial irritation as may occur with the common cold or inhaled irritants. D. All of the above. Which of the following statements related to proton pump inhibitors and histaminergic H 2‑receptor antagonists is correct? Proton pump inhibitors and histaminergic H 2‑receptor antagonists are indicated for _______________. A. the treatment of both active duodenal and gastric ulcers B. short-term treatment of duodenal ulcers C. the treatment of symptomatic gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) D. risk reduction of NSAID-associated gastric ulcer Which of the following GI drugs in the Top 300 accelerates healing of ulcers by forming a complex with proteinaceous exudate at the ulcer site and inhibits pepsin activity? A. Omeprazole B. Ranitidine C. Sucralfate D. Metoclopramide Which of the following GI drugs in the Top 300 is indicated for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, motion sickness, and vertigo? A. Docusate B. Meclizine C. Dicyclomine D. Metoclopramide Which of the following GU drugs in the Top 300 is selective prostate alpha 1‑adrenegic receptor antagonists indicated for the treatment of BPH? A. Tamsulosin and terazosi B. Finasteride and dutasteride C. Sildenafil and tadalafil D. Solifenacin and tolterodine Which the following statements related to allergic rhinitis is correct? A. Allergic rhinitis is characterized by itchy palate, sneezing, coughing, and runny nose; and allergic conjunctivitis that result from the combined action of histamine and the release of other chemical mediators of inflammation. B. Intranasal corticosteroids (e.g., fluticasone) are the most common treatment for persistent symptoms of allergic rhinitis. C. Patients with more severe allergic rhinitis that does not respond to intranasal corticosteroids may be taking an antihistamine, and a cysteinyl leukotriene (CysLT)-receptor antagonist. D. All of the above. All of the following statements related to asthma are correct EXCEPT which one? A. Asthma is primarily an inflammatory disorder of the airway, with inflammation caused by allergens or other stimuli leading to bronchial hypersecretion and bronchospasm. B. In patients with intermittent asthma daily medication with low-dose inhaled corticosteroid such as budesonide is preferred (Step 2); montelukast, a cysteinyl leukotriene (CysLT)-receptor antagonist, is an alternative. C. Treatment of persistent moderate asthma may include medium-dose inhaled corticosteroid plus inhaled long-acting selective beta 2‑adrenergic receptor agonist; or medium-dose inhaled corticosteroid plus montelukast, cysteinyl leukotriene (CysLT)-receptor antagonist. D. Persistent severe asthma is treated with high-dose inhaled corticosteroid plus inhaled long-acting selective beta 2‑adrenergic receptor agonist. Which of the following statements related to COPD is correct? A. On exertion (physical or emotional stress), patients with COPD typically experience coughing, dyspnea (air hunger), and wheezing (a high-pitch whistling sound). B. Maintenance therapy for COPD may include an inhaled corticosteroid with a long-acting selective beta 2‑adremergic receptor agonist such as fluticasone w/salmeterol or an inhaled long-acting muscarinic M 3‑receptor antagonist, such as ipratropium. C. Patients with COPD placed in a supine position may experience orthopnea soon after reclining - treat patients in a semi-reclining position and monitor oxygen saturation with a pulse oximeter. D. All of the above. All of the following statements related to sneezing and coughing are correct EXCEPT which one? A. A sneeze is an explosive respiratory maneuver, which reflexively or deliberately is intended to clear irritants, foreign particles, and secretions from the airway. B. Common causes of acute cough include upper respiratory tract infections, exacerbation of COPD and asthma, and pneumonia. C. Common causes of chronic cough include chronic bronchitis and GERD, treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, and obstructive sleep apnea. D. Symptomatic treatment of cough may include the administration of guaifenesin or guaifenesin w/codeine. All of the following statements related to PUD are correct EXCEPT which one? A. Prostaglandins inhibitors enhance mucosal resistance to injury by maintaining mucosal blood flow to remove acid that has diffused across the compromised mucosa and by stimulating the secretion of mucus and bicarbonate. B. Peptic activity is an indispensable component of the pathogenesis of ulcers, but peptic ulcers generally develop only when mucosal defense mechanisms are also altered - two major factors, H. pylori infection and NSAIDs appear to disrupt mucosal resistance to injury. C. The medical management of PUD includes various antibacterial combinations and an H 2‑receptor blocker (e.g., ranitidine) or a proton pump inhibitor (e.g., omeprazole). D. When managing odontogenic pain consider the well-established ulcerogenic effect of NSAIDs and use alternative analgesics, e.g., acetaminophen-containing formulations. All of the following statements related to GERD are correct EXCEPT which one? A. Symptoms associated with GERD include substernal burning pain radiating up to the neck, which is relieved immediately by nitroglycerin. B. Medical treatment for GERD includes histaminergic H 2‑receptor blocking agents such as ranitidine and/or proton pump inhibitors such as omeprazole. C. When treating patients with a history of GEDR recognize that these patients may experience episodes of reflux when in a supine position - they tend to do better in the perioperative period in a semi-reclining position. D. When managing odontogenic pain keep in mind the well-established ulcerogenic effect of NSAIDs. All of the following statements related to constipation are correct EXCEPT which one? A. Major causes of constipation include functional abnormalities, colonic disease, rectal problems, neurological diseases and metabolic conditions, and the administration of many drugs. B. Osmotic agents such as docusate or polyethylene glycol 3350 soften stool by increasing the amount of water the stool absorbs and make it easier to pass. C. It is of note that opioid analgesics, by binding μ-receptors in GI tract, increase the tone of the anterior portion of the stomach, decrease gastric motility, and cause constipation. D. The risk of opioid analgesic-induced constipation is unavoidable, it is not dose related and patients develop tolerance. All of the following statements related to irritable bowel syndrome are correct EXCEPT which one? A. IBS is an uncommon (rare) functional disorder of the GI tract characterized by altered GI motility, GI hypersensitivity, and psychosocial factors. B. Patients with IBS may experience bloating, flocculence, dyspepsia, atypical chest pain; and diarrhea or constipation, or alternating diarrhea and constipation. C. To relieve pain associated with IBS, dicyclomine, a potent anticholinergic agent that relieves smooth muscle spasm of the GI tract may be helpful. D. IBS with diarrhea may respond to loperamide, which binds to opiate receptor in the gut wall, inhibits the release of acetylcholine and prostaglandins, reduces peristalsis, and increases intestinal transit time. All of the following statements related to diabetes-related gastroparesis are correct EXCEPT which one? A. GI complications of diabetes mellitus (DM) are often caused by abnormal GI motility, which is a consequence of diabetic autonomic neuropathy caused primarily by impaired vagal control. B. Symptoms consistent with gastroparesis include nausea, vomiting, bloating, postprandial fullness (satiety), upper abdominal pain, and delayed gastric emptying contributes to poor blood glucose control. C. Dietary modifications include fiber supplements and foods that are high in fat to increase gastric emptying. D. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent that stimulates motility of the upper GI tract is useful to minimize the symptoms of postprandial fullness and nausea. All of the following statements associated with benign prostatic hypertrophy are correct EXCEPT which one? A. Benign prostate hypertrophy is a common age-related, nonmalignant adenomatous overgrowth of the peri-urethral prostate gland. B. Symptoms include urgency, incomplete emptying, increased frequency, weak stream, hesitancy, overflow incontinence, nocturia; and, potentially, complete urinary retention. C. Alpha 1‑adrenergic receptor antagonists such as terazosin and tamsulosin, which cause smooth muscle relaxation in the prostatic urethra and bladder neck, are the first-line of treatment for moderate-to-severe symptoms. D. If monotherapy with an alpha 1‑adrenergic receptor antagonist is not effective, a 5α-reductase inhibitor (e.g., finasteride or dutasteride) that increases testosterone-associated androgenic effects is added to the regimen. All of the following statements associated with erectile dysfunction are correct EXCEPT which one? A. ED is defined as the inability to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. B. In associations with sympathetic stimuli, nitric oxide produced by endothelial cells triggers a molecular cascade that results in smooth muscle relaxation and arterial influx of blood into the corpus cavernosum. C. First-line therapy for ED is aimed at lifestyle changes directed at increased physical activity, weight loss, and smoking cessation; and modifying pharmacotherapy that may contribute to ED. D. Pharmacotherapy with sildenafil or tadalafil, which inhibit phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) responsible for degradation of cGMP enhances the effect of nitric oxide and result in smooth muscle relaxation and inflow of blood to the corpus cavernosum. Which of the following statements related to urinary incontinence is correct? A. Therapy includes an alpha 1‑adrenergic receptor agonist that increase sphincter tone and anticholinergic agents such as solifenacin and tolterodine that relax the detrusor muscle. B. Some patients with UI may experience extreme urgency with little or no warning and may be unable to prevent voiding until reaching the bathroom. C. Opioid analgesics cause overflow-incontinence and NSAIDs increase fluid retention causing functional-incontinence. D. All of the above.